Sample Items and Explanations
Sample Questions

A 31-year-old obese female with a history of
asthma comes to your office complaining of severe shortness of
breath and wheezing. She produces from her purse a number of
active medications including a beclomethasone metered dose
inhaler (MDI) and salmeterol MDI. She also appears to be taking
zafirlukast daily. She tells you that she has been hospitalized
many times for asthma flares and was once intubated. Her review
of systems is pertinent for asthma attacks of increasing severity
over the past few weeks but she denies any fever, cough, chills,
or pleuritic chest pain. On exam, the patient demonstrates
audible expiratory wheezes with a markedly prolonged expiratory
time. Her respiratory rate is 20-24/min and she is acutely short
of breath, using accessory muscles of respiration to breathe. Her
vital signs are otherwise stable. Which of the following is the
most beneficial management of this patient?
(A) Obtain a chest radiograph to rule out pneumonia
(B) Obtain a peak flow estimate
(C) Albuterol nebulizer therapy in the office
(D) Refer the patient to the local hospital for admission
(E) Refer the patient to the local emergency room for evaluation
and treatment


A 69-year-old man
is brought to the clinic for progressively worsening memory loss
and confusion. The patient has a long history of hypertension and
coronary artery disease. He has not seen a physician in a number
of years and has not been taking any medications. The family
reports a step-wise decline in his cognitive function over the
past few years. He has long periods where he appears stable and
then suddenly worsens over a few days. On physical examination,
he is a thin but not cachectic appearing man with a blood
pressure of 185/110 mm Hg. His physical examination is notable
for a faint carotid pulsation on the left with a prominent right
carotid bruit. He has an S4 gallop on precordial
examination.
Which of the following is the appropriate first step in the
management of this patient?
(A) Initiate donepazil therapy
(B) Initiate atenolol therapy
(C) Initiate warfarin therapy
(D) Order a carotid ultrasound study
(E) Order a head CT scan

A 43-year-old
African-American man comes to the clinic for the first time as
part of a neighborhood-screening program for hypertension. He
reports that he has no past medical history but has not seen a
physician routinely for the past ten years. He smokes two packs
of cigarettes per day but denies ethanol or any substance abuse.
He takes no medicines regularly. The nurse measures his blood
pressure as 165/90 mm Hg in the left arm while sitting. The
physician has a long discussion with the patient concerning the
possibility that his blood pressure has been elevated for some
time and that he may need medical therapy in order to lower it to
appropriate levels. A careful physical examination is performed
looking for possible end-organ manifestations of long-standing
untreated hypertension. Which of the following signs is
suggestive of long standing hypertension?
(A) S3 gallup
(B) Abdominal bruit
(C) Carotid bruit
(D) S4 gallup
(E) Systolic ejection murmur

A 19-year-old
gravida 0 presents to the student health center complaining of
lower abdominal pain and urinary urgency of three days duration.
She has not had this condition before. She is sexually active,
and sometimes uses condoms for contraception. She has intercourse
about three times a week; her last intercourse was three days
ago. Her last menstrual period was three weeks ago. Her periods
are regular at 28-day intervals, and last about 5 days. She does
not have any gastrointestinal symptoms. Her temperature is 1010F
(38.30C), pulse 100, respirations are 20/min, and her blood
pressure is 100/60. On physical examination, the abdomen is soft,
but there is tenderness to deep palpation in both lower quadrants
with slight rebound tenderness as well. The liver, kidney, and
spleen are not palpable. Bowel sounds are active. The vulva is
clean; there is no evidence of discharge or irritation. The
vaginal is well supported, uninflamed, and clean. The cervix is
nulliparous, and there is a mucopurulent discharge in the os. A
cervicovaginal PAP smear is taken. Cultures are also taken from
the vagina and cervix. There is tenderness to cervical motion.
The uterus is of normal size, shape and position. The adnexa are
difficult to palpate, and are not well felt, but there is
bilateral tenderness. Rectovaginal examination is confirmatory.
Trichomonads are identified on microscopic examination of vaginal
secretions. Her white blood count is 10,000 with a left shift;
urinalysis shows 1-2 WBC, trichomonads, and 1+ proteinuria. Which
of the following is the next best step in her management?
(A) Admit to the hospital for parenteral antibiotic
treatment
(B) Begin 7 days of metronidazole, 500 mg TID po for the patient
and her partner
(C) Order ceftriaxone 250 mg IM and doxycyline 100 mg b.i.d. po
for 10 days
(D) Prescribe acetaminophen for pain and intermittent heat to the
lower abdomen; re-evaluate when cultures return
(E) Schedule for a transvaginal ultrasound

On the morning of
the second day after delivering a 3,500-g infant, a 16-year old
gravida 1, para 0 develops a temperature of 1010 F (38.30C). Her
antepartum course was unremarkable. Membranes ruptured shortly
after hospital admission and the onset of labor was spontaneous
but desultory. Oxytocin augmentation was necessary. The first
stage of labor was 22 hours; the second stage was 3 hours and 45
minutes. Delivery of the vertex was expedited by vacuum forceps
over an intact perineum under pudendal block anesthesia. The
placenta delivered spontaneously. Since delivering, she had been
ambulating and eating well. Physical examination reveals a
temperature of 1020F (38.80C), a pulse of 108 bpm, respirations
22/min, and a blood pressure of 110/60. Breasts are full with
moderate colostrum secretion from the nipples. The abdomen is
soft; there is no liver, kidney, or spleen palpable. The perineum
is clean, and the lochia rubra has a foul odor. Pelvic
examination is within normal limits for postpartum status except
for uterine tenderness to motion and foul lochia. Examination of
the extremities, including previous intravenous sites, is within
normal limits. Which of the following is the next best step in
her management?
(A) Begin oral methylergonovine, encourage fluid intake,
re-evaluate in four hours
(B) Culture the lochia and start acetaminophen; await culture
report
(C) Initiate imipenem/cilastatin intravenous therapy
(D) Order a CBC, encourage fluid intake, re-evaluate in four
hours
(E) Start a first-generation cephalosporin orally